Recently in the
Palm Tree Garden there has been a bit of chatter about the matter-spirit dualism, or the ability for the Kosmos to exist completely outside of and apart from the Pleroma, or Fullness known in Christian terms as "The Father." The question has been, or I should say the thought-experiment has been, 'how can God's Spirit remain immanent in the Universe if the Universe is
outside of God?' Well the answer to this question is far beyond the reaches of my tiny human brain, and no revelation has disclosed this to me, so to be frankly honest I have no absolute opinion one way or the other. But that is not what I want to discuss here.
In the course of the conversation my good friend Space Debris has often pointed out the
Gospel of Thomas' logion 40 is strong evidence against Gnostic belief in panentheism, the idea that the Universe is somehow contained in God, surrounded or enveloped by Him. This is certainly not the only text that makes this claim among either Gnostic or Hermetic texts, but it is a prominent one and worthy of attention. Please keep in mind that this text is a translation from a Greek original and any ambiguities that arise may very well be due to this circumstance.
(40) Jesus said, "A grapevine has been planted outside the father. And because it is not sound, it will be plucked out by the root and will perish." (Bentley Layton)
If this passage indeed refers to the Kosmos as the "grapevine," then it would seem on the surface to support a belief that the Universe has been somehow cast out of God's Fullness, or was never in the Fullness to begin with. Curious as to what the Coptic text read,
I consulted the Coptic text to see firsthand what was being said. What I found was (unsurprisingly in Coptic) an ambiguous verse.
In the second line of the verse is found the text "M-П-CA-N-BOλ M-П-EIWT" (pronounced "em-peh-sah-en-vol em-pei-oat"). This is commonly translated "outside the Father." To my confusion however, the adverb commonly translated as "outside" (CA-N-BOλ) was given an article (П) as if it were a substantive noun of some kind. I consulted
Crum's Coptic Dictionary. Nowhere in the Coptic body of texts, Christian or pagan, is a substantive use of CA-N-BOλ cited by Crum (See
Crum 35b) . If this is indeed the right word, CA-N-BOλ, it is being used here in Thomas in a fashion that I cannot find attested anywhere else.
A funny thing about ancient texts is that words are completely run together without punctuation or spacing. So on the surface I have no real reason to group the word particles CA-N-BOλ together as a single word, and I needed to explore alternatives as to why there is an extra article, П, in front.
The first place I looked was the english index to
Crum. The substantive (IE arthrous) word for outside is "BOλ" (See
Crum 33b). If this passage were trying to say that the grapevine were planted "on the outside of the Father," it would have been rendered easily M-П-BOλ M-П-EIWT, not M-П-CA-N-BOλ M-П-EIWT. It just doesn't make much sense to use an adverb as a noun when there is a perfectly well-attested substantive word meaning "outside."
So I checked to see if П-CA-N-BOλ could stand by itself as a noun. No dice. The word doesn't exist.
It became clear to me that the only other option was to explore the use of M-П-CA as a standalone construction, and the possibility of N-BOλ being an attributive construction modifying it. It turns out, on
Crum 35a, that N-BOλ is always used as an attributive adjective meaning "outer." So I asked myself what it is modifying, and on
Crum 313a there is a masculine noun, П-CA, which means either
side or
part. It is clear from the dictionary entry that CA does not mean "side" as in one side of a fence or the other. It means "side" as in "the side of a barn," or "the boat's side." It means an outward feature of any physical body. Therefore, П-CA-N-BOλ ought to be rendered separately, П-CA N-BOλ, and most likely means something like the "outer side."
Let me break it down for you from left to right: The "M" is a preposition, N (in, at, on), which assimilates as an M on a masculine noun. Next is the preposition's object, an article and a noun, П-CA, "the side" or "the part." After that is N-BOλ, an attributive construction that means "outer." Therefore this passage may find an alternative rendering in one of the following ways:
Jesus said, "A grapevine has been planted on the outer part of the father. And because it is not sound, it will be plucked out by the root and will perish."Jesus said, "A grapevine has been planted on the outside edge of the father. And because it is not sound, it will be plucked out by the root and will perish."Jesus said, "A grapevine has been planted on the outermost reaches of the father. And because it is not sound, it will be plucked out by the root and will perish."This alternate rendering is grammatically sound, and I can even make more sense of it than I can Layton's rendering. However, I admit I am not Layton and do not want to step on such a great man's toes. I hesitate to say that my rendering is automatically
better than Layton's - after all many translations use Layton's rendering. But it
is a sound alternative no matter how you slice it. Why does Layton opt to use an unattested (or very rarely attested - it is more than probable that Layton saw his usage attested in some rare papyrus somewhere) usage of these words to render the translation as he does? I cannot rule out the possibility of scholarly bias toward Gnostic texts: it is at least possible that the matter-spirit dualism that makes up the dominant scholarly picture of the Gnostic worldview influenced this rendering.
Don't get me wrong - I have the greatest respect for Layton and his work, and would just adore the opportunity to work at the feet of such a master. But faced with an ambiguous passage, even the wisest and most read scholars might lean toward simply confirming presupposed suspicions. I would tell him of my alternative reading myself... that is,
if he ever actually answered his emails.